May 11, 2015 · While 1/i = i−1 1 / i = i 1 is true (pretty much by definition), if we have a value c c such that c∗i = 1 c ∗ i = 1 then c= i−1 c = i 1. This is because we know that inverses in the …

Aug 30, 2010 · There are infinitely many possible values for $1^i$, corresponding to different branches of the complex logarithm. The confusing point here is that the formula $1^x = 1$ is …

Jan 15, 2013 · Possible Duplicate: How do I convince someone that $1+1=2$ may not necessarily be true? I once read that some mathematicians provided a very length proof of $1+1=2$. Can …

知乎，中文互联网高质量的问答社区和创作者聚集的原创内容平台，于 2011 年 1 月正式上线，以「让人们更好的分享知识、经验和见解，找到自己的解答」为品牌使命。

注1：【】代表软件中的功能文字 注2：同一台电脑，只需要设置一次，以后都可以直接使用 注3：如果觉得原先设置的格式不是自己想要的，可以继续点击【多级列表】——【定义新多级 …

Jun 13, 2020 · Is there a formal proof for $(-1) \\times (-1) = 1$? It's a fundamental formula not only in arithmetic but also in the whole of math. Is there a proof for it or is it just assumed?

Mar 30, 2020 · This is same as AA -1. It means that we first apply the A -1 transformation which will take as to some plane having different basis vectors. If we think what is the inverse of A -1 …

Intending on marking as accepted, because I'm no mathematician and this response makes sense to a commoner. However, I'm still curious why there is 1 way to permute 0 things, …

The reason why $1^\infty$ is indeterminate, is because what it really means intuitively is an approximation of the type $ (\sim 1)^ {\rm large \, number}$. And while $1$ to a large power is …

Jun 26, 2020 · 对于 (1+1/n)^n ＜ 3的证明如下图 (图片来自 崔尚斌数学分析教程)